K108. Did Paul tell us just to confess righteousness instead? (2)

I have explained in (K107) that Rom 8:1 cannot stand alone by itself. Hence, we went deeper and found out that Paul was determined to serve the law of God with his mind, take up his cross daily (Rom 7:24-25), do the words of Christ (Luk 9:23-26), and walk in the law and Spirit of God.
Rom 8:1-2 KJV  There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.  (2)  For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
Today we can still go deeper into what Paul would say about the law and Spirit of God. If Paul was not under the law, was he out of the law or 'above the law'?

Was Paul out of the law or having no more law?
Rom 7:24-25 KJV  O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?  (25)  I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
Does it mean that there was no more law or no more commandment, and therefore no more condemnation to Paul in Rom 8:1? No, on the contrary, it means more law than before because Paul had decided with his mind to serve the law of God more than the law of sin and death in his body or flesh.
But many pure grace or hyper grace preachers will argue, "No, no, no. We disagree. How can there be more law when Paul said in Rom 8:3 KJV, For what the law could not do.., God sending his own Son.., condemned sin in the flesh .. .. It means that the law is not the solution. It is the problem. If we go back to the law, we are back to doom. The gospel that Paul preached is not a mixture. It is the gospel of pure grace. Please don't bring in the law."
I will ask them, Have you read carefully? In Rom 7, Paul had shown us that he was struggling between the two laws: the law of God and the law of sin. In Rom 8, Paul was still showing us the two laws, but it was no more a struggle to him because he had decided to follow the law and Spirit of God. We can probably see better if we read Rom 7:24 to Rom 8:1-4 continuously:
Rom 7:24-25 KJV  O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?  (25)  I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
Rom 8:1-7 KJV  There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.  (2)  For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.  (3)  For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Hence, 'the law' in Rom 8:3 must be read with the previous verses (Rjom 7:25 and Rom 8:2). It was 'the law' of the flesh or the law of sin and death which was weak through the flesh. 'The law' in Rom 8:3 was not the law of God that Paul would serve with his mind. So, why can't we say that there is now more law of God in our minds than the law of sin and death in our flesh? This will explain why we have the law of God in our hearts and minds in Heb 8:10 and Heb 10:16 too.

The law of God is the same as the law of Spirit to Paul
Many will still argue, "No, The law of God and the law of Spirit are the two different laws. Paul would not want us to follow the law of God; he wants us to follow only the law of Spirit because we are no more under the law."
I will tell them, Paul has said it very clearly in Rom 7 - the two different laws are the law of God and the law of sin. But in Rom 8, he would consider the law of God and the law of Spirit as the same because:
1. he compare the law of Spirit to the law of God: Rom 8:6-7 KJV  For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.  (7)  Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
2. he compared the law of Spirit against the law of sin and death: Rom 8:2 KJV  For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

What is the difference? 'under the law' and 'in the law of God and Spirit'?
If Paul had more law than before, what can we say about him? Can we say that he was out of the law, above the law, having no more law, or lawless? No, it is impossible to say that if he had more law than before. After exploring all the options about his status in the law, we can say that he was no more under the law; but he could be 'in the law'.
I am not very sure if 'in the law' is the appropriate words. However, I believe that it can show better contrast in comparison with 'under the law'.
1. Being in the law - it means more law in the Spirit. It means being in the law and Spirit of God. The law of the Spirit cannot be counted or written in the form of rules and regulation like the Ten Commandments. However, it is still a law which includes the Ten Commandments as the Holy Spirit will still convict us and guide us to obey all the commandments of God and Jesus Christ - Joh 16:8-13 KJV  And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:  ..  (13)  Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. Hence, when Jesus, The Word of God who came in the flesh, showed the lawyer how the Ten Commandments could be summarized into two and how it is still valid for us to obey it (Luk 10:29), He showed us the law of the Spirit too.
2. Being under the law - it means more law for the flesh under the Old Testament. The laws were written rigidly or ritualistically in the form of stones, scrolls, letters, or documents as codes or lists eg. circumcision laws, the sacrificial laws, the ceremonial laws, and the Jewish law and order of worship in the temple. Many of these laws were followed by the Jews ritualistically (or blindly) without much understanding of the Spirit of the laws. They would just do it with the thinking that all their sins could be cleansed without turning away from their sins. The Pharisees were one type of hypocrites who had capitalize on this to justify themselves for sinning willfully (Heb 10:26). Sadly, many Christians today do not understand the Spirit of the law of God too. They are not under the law but they are still having the same mentality of the Jews and Pharisees who were under the law. I am afraid they are not in the law and Spirit of God even though they may confess that Jesus is Lord (Heb 10:29, Mat 7:22). If we are truly in Christ, we are in His Word and we are in His law. We would be determined to serve the law of God with our hearts and minds. We would think like Paul too.

What is the difference? 'under the law' and 'under the law of Christ'?
If we do not like to be 'in the law of God and Spirit', how about being 'under the law of Christ'? Is there a difference between 'being under the law' and 'under the law of Christ'? Of course, there is a big difference. I believe that it is the same difference that I have already mentioned between being under 'the law' and being in the law of God and Spirit. When we are under 'the law' without Christ, 'the law' is the law of sin and death. But when we are under the law of Christ, the law of Christ is the law of life and resurrection to our spirit, soul, and body.
Many will say, "Why do you make it so confusing? What's the difference if you are in the law or under the law of Christ? You are still have the law, and therefore, you are still under the law. When you are under the law, the law is the sting of death."
1Co 15:56-57 KJV  The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law.  (57)  But thanks be to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ.
I will tell them, Yes, I agree. Yes, the sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law, and therefore, the strength of the sting of death is 'the law'. But have we asked why 'the law' is the law of sin and death. Paul had said it clearly in Rom 7 that it was 'the law of sin and death because it could still work in his flesh or body, bringing wretchedness to his body. Therefore, he would serve the law of God and Spirit or the law of Christ with his mind, that he might walk in His Spirit. He was totally delivered because of what he did with his mind or heart. Hence, he thanked God for Jesus Christ (1Cor 15:57) and through Jesus Christ (Rom 7:25).
I also agree that it could be quite confusing. But it is confusing because people are not willing to hear the law of Christ or the law of God and Spirit. They do not want to be under any law. If we know the law of God, we would never think that Paul wanted us to be totally out of the law or having no more law:
1Co 9:20-21 KJV  And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;  (21)  To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.
Paul said that he was NOT WITHOUT the law of God, but under the law of Christ, even though he might live as though he was never under the law so that he might win those who are not under the law. Isn't it clear to us that he could never be out of the law or having no more law?

For this reason, Wesley concluded in his commentaries: "To them that are without the law - The heathens. As without the law - Neglecting its ceremonies. Being not without the law to God - But as much as ever under its moral precepts. Under the law to Christ - And in this sense all Christians will be under the law for ever."

We can also say that we are in the law too: 1Co 9:21 YLT  to those without law, as without law--(not being without law to God, but within law to Christ) --that I might gain those without law;

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